n35
citation:book2Kings
citation:c6
citation:v25
citation:position16
author:nameBen Denckla
author:mailbdenckla@alum.mit.edu
author:confirmedtrue
descriptionNote that while creating the pointed qere, the transcriber added a dagesh to dalet
lc:folioFolio_206B
lc:column1
lc:line11
lc:creditCredit: Sefaria.org.
reftextדִּבְיוֹנִ֖ים
refunidalet dagesh hiriq bet sheva yod vav holam nun hiriq tipeha yod final-mem
changetextדִּבְיוֹנִ֖ים
changeunidalet dagesh hiriq bet sheva yod vav holam nun hiriq tipeha yod final-mem
notes:noteThe manuscript’s pointed ketiv (MPK) is חִרְייֹונִ֖ים.
notes:note-2The MPK’s ח does not carry a dagesh for the qere’s ד, perhaps because that would be illegal.
notes:note-3The ḥolam malei dot on the qere’s vav comes from the (illegal) ḥolam (ḥaser?) dot on the second yod of the MPK!
notes:note-4Instead of being on the second yod of the MPK, why isn’t this dot on the vav of the MPK?
notes:note-5In other words, instead of חִ רְ י יֹ ו נִ֖ י ם, why isn’t the MPK חִ רְ י י וֹ נִ֖ י ם? (I have spaced out the letters for clarity.)
notes:note-6More regarding the odd placement of this dot: the last five letters of ketiv and qere, יונים, are in common between ketiv and qere. So why not point them in the MPK as they are in the (implied) qere?
notes:note-7Yet another way of stating this question: I see the ketiv/qere variation in this word as restricted to the prefixes חרי and דב respectively. So in the common suffix יונים, i.e. after that variation, why should the MPK be any different than the (implied) qere?
transnotes:transnote:actionAdd
transnotes:transnote:typea
transnotes:transnote:beforetextדִּ
statusPending
typeNoTextChange