How did Yeivin determine that Rule D1 is not obeyed in manuscripts in which vocal shewa is often made explicit? To answer that question, we first need to know: what does it even mean for this rule to be obeyed in such manuscripts? I ask this second, more basic question because in my interpretation at least, this rule’s purpose is to resolve the ambiguity surrounding the “vocality” of simple shewa, but in many cases these manuscripts have no such ambiguity, due to their use of ḥaṭef.
In words where a vocal shewa sound is already explicitly called for, i.e. in words where ḥaṭef is used, it is in some sense “unfair” to expect a gaʿya to redundantly call for a vocal shewa sound. So it is not surprising that, as Yeivin documents here and elsewhere, we don’t consistently find such redundancy.
The more interesting words are ones in which only simple shewa is used. In such words, the question becomes: which of the following is true?
As Yeivin documents here and elsewhere, unfortunately the answer is number 2: although in these manuscripts ḥaṭef is often used to unambiguously notate a vocal shewa sound, simple shewa is still used ambiguously in these manuscripts in the circumstances under discussion: on the FIP.
Let’s return to the basic question of what Yeivin means when he says that Rule D1 is not obeyed in manuscripts in which vocal shewa is often made explicit. What he means, initially at least, is the following:
So Yeivin’s examples merely show that manuscripts like μA don’t obey D1 “naively,” by which I mean that they don’t obey D1 assuming that simple shewa means silent shewa. But, the real question is whether Rule D1 is obeyed in these words without assuming that simple shewa means silent shewa. The answer is that Rule D1 is not obeyed in that way either. Yeivin implicitly provides that answer when he goes on to give Rule D2.